If crime is defined as an economic “bad” rather than an economic “good” then why isn’t the optimal amount of crime simpl

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answerhappygod
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If crime is defined as an economic “bad” rather than an economic “good” then why isn’t the optimal amount of crime simpl

Post by answerhappygod »

If crime is defined as an economic “bad” rather than an economic
“good” then why isn’t the optimal amount of crime simply equal to
zero? Be specific.
Note: in general terms, as an economic “bad” less is preferable
to more.
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