If crime is defined as an economic “bad” rather than an economic “good” then why isn’t the optimal amount of crime simpl

Business, Finance, Economics, Accounting, Operations Management, Computer Science, Electrical Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, Civil Engineering, Chemical Engineering, Algebra, Precalculus, Statistics and Probabilty, Advanced Math, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Nursing, Psychology, Certifications, Tests, Prep, and more.
Post Reply
answerhappygod
Site Admin
Posts: 899604
Joined: Mon Aug 02, 2021 8:13 am

If crime is defined as an economic “bad” rather than an economic “good” then why isn’t the optimal amount of crime simpl

Post by answerhappygod »

If crime is defined as an economic “bad” rather than an economic
“good” then why isn’t the optimal amount of crime simply equal to
zero? Be specific.
Note: in general terms, as an economic “bad” less is preferable
to more.
Join a community of subject matter experts. Register for FREE to view solutions, replies, and use search function. Request answer by replying!
Top
Post Reply

Return to “Archived Questions & Answers”