Why is it necessary that F'(u) > 0?
I interpret the previous question as:
Want to show:
given F'(u) > 0 & u > 0
that (du/dx1)/(du/dx2) = (dF(u)/dx1)/(dF(u)/dx2)
Since dF(u)/dx1 = (dF(u)/du)(du/dx1)
and dF(u)/dx2 = (dF(u)/du)(du/dx2),
(dF(u)/dx1)/(dF(u)/dx2)
= (dF(u)/du)(du/dx1)/(dF(u)/du)(du/dx2) [chain rule]
= (du/dx1)/(du/dx2) [dF(u)/du != 0]
Can someone please tell me what I missed?
6. Note that the slopes of the indifference curves for each of the utility functions of question 5 are the same. This is because of the functional relationship between the utility functions. That is, û F(u) = u? and ū= F(u) = Buk. = = FOR FUNCTIONS OF N-VARIABLES In both cases the derivative of the F function, F'(-), is positive on u > 0. We call such an F function a positive monotonic transformation of u. Show that for any such F used to generate a function of some original function u(x1,4?). the resulting function has indifference curves (or more generally level curves) with the same shape.
6. Note that the slopes of the indifference curves for each of the utility functions of question 5 are the same. This is
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answerhappygod
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6. Note that the slopes of the indifference curves for each of the utility functions of question 5 are the same. This is
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