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answerhappygod
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by answerhappygod »

- 1 D N Dt N 0 3 N 0 4 4n 24 Cos At 1 (58.57 KiB) Viewed 30 times
Inverse laplace transform
No, i mean laplace
1) d ²n dt n (0) = 3, n (0) = 4 4n = 24 cos at
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