An 8-year-old boy is evaluated for ventricular systolic overload. The standard-lead ECG shows severe left axis deviation of the main QRS vector (upward in lead I and downward in lead II). Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's condition?
A. Coarctation of the aorta
B. Mitral valve stenosis
C. Pulmonary valve stenosis
D. Right atrial hypertrophy
E. Right ventricular hypertrophy
An 8-year-old boy is evaluated for ventricular systolic overload. The standard-lead ECG shows severe left axis deviation
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