Why do we say that genes that show incomplete dominance have a dosage effect, but genes that show codominance do not? (A

Post by **answerhappygod** » Sat Jul 02, 2022 9:23 pm

: Why Do We Say That Genes That Show Incomplete Dominance Have A Dosage Effect But Genes That Show Codominance Do Not A 1 (33.26 KiB) Viewed 13 times

Why do we say that genes that show incomplete dominance have a dosage effect, but genes that show codominance do not? (A) The amount of gene product from the dominant allele in incomplete dominance is what drives the blending of phenotypes (D) The amount of product expressed in incomplete dominance does not influence the phenotype seen (B) In codominance, the amount of one allele's product does not influence the amount of the other alleles product. Both products are expressed independently. (C) The amount of one gene product keeps the dosage of the other gene product in check in codominance (A) and (B) (C) and (D)