If crime is defined as an economic “bad” rather than an economic “good” then why isn’t the optimal amount of crime simpl
Posted: Thu May 19, 2022 9:53 am
If crime is defined as an economic “bad” rather than an economic
“good” then why isn’t the optimal amount of crime simply equal to
zero? Be specific.
Note: in general terms, as an economic “bad” less is preferable
to more.
“good” then why isn’t the optimal amount of crime simply equal to
zero? Be specific.
Note: in general terms, as an economic “bad” less is preferable
to more.