We will prove, and apply, the Pigeonhole Principle: For any function from a finite set 𝑋 with 𝑛 elements to a finite set

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answerhappygod
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We will prove, and apply, the Pigeonhole Principle: For any function from a finite set 𝑋 with 𝑛 elements to a finite set

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We will prove, and apply, the Pigeonhole Principle: For anyfunction from a finite set 𝑋 with 𝑛 elements to a
finite set π‘Œ with π‘š elements, if 𝑛 > π‘š, then 𝑓 is notone-to-one.
[2 pts] Denote the elements of π‘Œ by 𝑦1, 𝑦2, ..., π‘¦π‘š. For each π‘₯∈ 𝑋, the must be some integer π‘˜ such that 1 ≀ π‘˜ ≀ π‘š and π‘₯ βˆˆπ‘“βˆ’1({π‘¦π‘˜}) – why?
[1 pt] Thus, what is the relationship between 𝑋 and β‹ƒπ‘š π‘“βˆ’1({𝑦})? 𝑖=1 𝑖
[1 pt] The sets π‘“βˆ’1({𝑦𝑖}), for 1 ≀ 𝑖 ≀ π‘š, are mutually disjoint– why?
[1 pt] Thus, what is the relationship between |𝑋| and|π‘“βˆ’1({𝑦𝑖})|, for 1 ≀ 𝑖 ≀ π‘š?
[3 pts] Supposing that 𝑓 is one-to-one, we arrive at acontradiction – what is it?
[2 pts] Suppose π‘Ž1, π‘Ž2, ..., π‘Žπ‘› is a sequence of 𝑛 integers noneof which is divisible by 𝑛. Show that at least one of thedifferences π‘Žπ‘– βˆ’ π‘Žπ‘— (for 𝑖 =ΜΈ 𝑗) must be divisible by 𝑛.
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