Tech In Surgery NCCT Questions + Answers

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QUESTION 1
When using a tourniquet, the surgeon should be notified when the tourniquet has been inflated for ____.
A. 45 minutes B. 1 hour
C. 90 minutes D. 2 hours
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2
A vasoconstrictor that is often mixed with local anesthetics is ____.

A. Hyaluronidase B. Epinephrine C. Cocaine
D. Bacitracin
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3
Drugs with a high potential to cause psychological and/or physical dependence and abuse are called ____.

A. Over the counter
B. Chemical
C. Prescription
D. Controlled substances
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4
The transport of the drug substance that occurs once it enters the circulatory system is ____.
A. Binding
B. Distribution C. Barrier
D. Absorption
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5
What organ is primarily responsible for the excretion of a drug?
A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Kidneys D. Intestines
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation


Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6
Which agents selectively interrupt the associative pathways of the brain?
A. Opioids
B. Dissociative C. Induction
D. Tranquilizers
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7
Demerol, Sublimaze, Sufenta, and Alfenta are examples of ____.
A. Opioids
B. Dissociative agents C. Narcotic antagonists D. Hypnotic agents
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8
Patient position and agent baricity can influence the effect of ____.
A. Nerve plexus
B. Local anesthetic


C. Spinal anesthetic D. Caudal block
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 9
Lane, Kern, Lowman, and Lewin are examples of ____.
A. Grasping instruments B. Tissue forceps
C. Bone-holding clamps D. Hemostats
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 10
Instruments used to hold a curved suture needle for suturing are called ____.
A. Dilators
B. Probes
C. Retractors
D. Needle holders
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 11
General abdominal procedures typically require a(an) ____ instrument set.
A. OB-GYN
B. Laparotomy
C. Otorhinolaryngology D. Peripheral vascular
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 12
What surgical specialty requires an instrument set specifically for dilatation and curettage?
A. Abdominal B. OB-GYN C. Orthopedic D. Cardiac
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 13
Sets that include instruments for exposure of the heart and great vessels are used for ____ procedures.



A. genitourinary
B. Orthopedic
C. Coronary bypass D. OB-GYN
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 14
Scopes typically used for cystoscopy, laparoscopy, and thoracoscopy are called ____.
A. Rigid
B. Semiflexible C. Flexible
D. Lensed
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15
The scope used for exploration of the biliary system is called a(an) ____.
A. Choledochoscope B. Mediastinoscope C. Ureteroscope
D. Angioscope
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation


Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16
An intentional cut through intact tissue for the purpose of exposing or excising underlying structures is called a/an ____.
A. Excision B. Incision C. Laceration D. Cut
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 17
Which of the following involves irrigation to wash out contaminants and removal of devitalized tissue?
A. draining
B. Debridement C. Incision
D. Closure
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 18
Healing where the wound is left open and allowed to heal from the inner layer to the outside surface is ____.
A. first intention
B. Second intention C. Third intention


D. Primary union
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 19
Raised, thickened scar due to excessive collagen formation is called ____.
A. Cicatrix
B. keloid
C. Proud flesh
D. Tensile strength
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 20
The partial or total separation of a layer or layers of tissue after closure is called ____.
A. Dehiscence B. Evisceration C. Herniation D. Fistula
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 21


A primary suture line consisting of a single strand of suture placed as a series of stitches is called ____.
A. Interlocking B. Looped
C. Continuous D. Interrupted
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 22
Sutures placed into an anatomical structure to retract to the side are called ____.
A. traction
B. Purse-string C. Secondary D. Retention
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 23
The suture is attached to the needle at the ____.
A. Eye B. Point C. Body D. End
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)


Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Needles manufactured with suture strands inserted into one end are ____.
A. Closed eye B. French eye C. Swaged
D. trocar
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 25
The needle used for tough tissue that is difficult to penetrate is called ____.
A. tapered B. Cutting C. Blunt D. Pointed
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:



QUESTION 26
The method in which hands and arms are scrubbed for a prescribed length of time is called ____.
A. Timed
B. Counted brush stroke C. Peripheral
D. Inspection
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 27
The closed-glove technique is used ____.
A. Before the surgical scrub
B. Before the sterile gown is donned
C. After the sterile gown has been donned D. After mask is donned
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 28
Angiography is used to ____.
A. Evaluate the heart
B. Assess peripheral vascular disease C. Detect ureteral stones
D. Image soft tissue


Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 29
Cholangiography is a radiographic study of the ____.
A. Colon
B. Gall bladder C. Stomach
D. Brain
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 30
The normal percentage of oxygen saturation in arterial blood is ____.
A. 96% to 100% of capacity B. 90% to 95% of capacity C. 85% to 89% of capacity D. 80% to 84% of capacity
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
The ____ is the physician who will provide a biopsy report.


A. General surgeon B. Family practitioner C. Pathologist
D. Oncologist
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 32
The gram stain is a technique used to identify a ____.
A. Virus
B. Bacteria C. Mold
D. Prion
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 33
Arterial saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is measured with the use of ____.
A. Pulse oximetry B. Capnography
C. Spirometry
D. Plethysmography
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation


Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 34
An otoscope is used for viewing the ____.

A. Peritoneal cavity B. eye
C. Brain
D. Ear
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 35
For which portion of the body is Renografin most often used?
A. urinary system B. biliary tree
C. Ureters
D. Cerebral portal
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36


Which vein is frequently used for insertion of an angiographic catheter?
A. Radial
B. Subclavian C. Cephalic D. Saphenous
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 37
Which of the following is a function of the omenta?
A. Synthesize vitamins
B. Limit peritoneal infection
C. Aid in digestion
D. Synthesize blood-clotting factors
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 38
In what position is the patient placed when McBurney’s incision will be used?
A. supine
B. Prone
C. Lateral
D. Lithotomy
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)


Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
A diaphragmatic hernia is located ____.
A. On the ventral body surface B. Around the umbilicus
C. In the diaphragm
D. In the groin
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 40
Which type of hernia is located within Hesselbach’s triangle?
A. Indirect
B. Congenital C. Epigastric D. Direct
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 41
Nissen fundoplication is the procedure performed to correct a/an ____. A. Gastric ulcer


B. Inguinal hernia
C. Hiatal hernia
D. Ruptured tubal pregnancy
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 42
An end ileostomy is created from the ____.
A. Transverse colon B. Descending colon C. Terminal ileum
D. Sigmoid colon
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 43
Removal of the gallbladder is called ____.
A. Cholecystectomy
B. Choledochojejunostomy C. Cholelithiasis
D. Colectomy
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 44
The condition of gallstones is called ____.
A. Pyelolithiasis B. Cholelithiasis C. Cystolithiasis D. Ureterolithiasis
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 45
What position is used to displace the abdominal contents to enhance the surgeon’s view of the lower abdominal region?
A. Trendelenburg
B. Lateral
C. Fowler’s
D. Reverse Trendelenburg
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 46
Whipple pancreaticoduodenectomy involves removal of the ____.
A. Head of the pancreas, distal one-third of the stomach, duodenum, proximal 10 cm of jejunum, gallbladder, cystic and common bile ducts, and peripancreatic and hepatoduodenal lymph nodes
B. Tail of the pancreas, proximal one-third of the stomach, duodenum, distal 10 cm of jejunum, gallbladder, cystic and hepatic ducts, and peripancreatic and hepatoduodenal lymph nodes


C. Pancreas, stomach, cecum, ileum, bladder, hepatic and cystic ducts, and periaortic lymph nodes
D. islets of Langerhans, spleen, stomach, duodenum, colon, cystic and common bile ducts, and peripancreatic and hepatoduodenal lymph nodes
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 47
Bartholin’s glands are located ____.
A. Just inside the urethral meatus B. within the vestibule
C. in the labia majora
D. At the hymenal ring
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 48
What causes the descent of the fetus through the pelvic canal?
A. Gravity
B. Uterine contractions C. Size of the fetus
D. Manual compressions
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 49
All of the following are parts of the uterus except the ____.
A. Fundus B. Fimbriae C. Corpus D. Cervix
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 50
A fibroid is a benign tumor of the ____.
A. Ovary
B. Myometrium
C. Endometrium
D. Bartholin’s gland
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Indigo carmine is used following tuboplasty to demonstrate ____.



A. Tubal patency
B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Adhesion formation D. Continued infertility
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 52
How can the STSR aid in the prevention of adhesion formation following pelvic surgery?
A. Remove powder from gloves
B. Ensure saline is available for irrigation C. Provide saline soaked lap sponges
D. Ensure drain is available for placement
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 53
The anterior chamber is the space ____.
A. Bound anteriorly by the cornea and posteriorly by the front of the iris B. Bound by the lens, ciliary body, and the retina
C. Occupied by the crystalline lens
D. Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the crystalline lens
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation


Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 54
Which term refers to complete removal of the eye?
A. Vitrectomy B. Enucleation C. Lensectomy D. Evisceration
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 55
The posterior chamber is the space ____.
A. Bound anteriorly by the cornea and posteriorly by the front of the iris B. Bound by the lens, ciliary body, and the retina
C. Occupied by the crystalline lens
D. Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the crystalline lens
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 56
The trigeminal nerve is also known as the ____.
A. Fifth cranial nerve B. optic nerve
C. Third cranial nerve


D. Oculomotor nerve
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 57
The process of accommodation is described as ____.
A. Light refraction
B. Focus
C. Formation of tears D. Dark adaptation
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 58
The nasolacrimal duct drains into the ____.
A. Lacrimal sac
B. Puncta lachrymalia
C. Inferior meatus of the nose D. Lacrimal canals
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 59


What does the term dacryocystitis mean?
A. Obstruction of the lacrimal duct
B. Inflammation of the lacrimal sac
C. Opacity of the crystalline lens
D. Small lump on the surface of the eyelid
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 60
Cryotherapy involves the utilization of ____.
A. Radiation
B. Heat
C. Cold
D. Electrocautery
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 61
What is the superior opening into the larynx called?
A. Carina B. Palate C. Cochlea D. Glottis
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)


Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Name the three sections of the pharynx.
A. Nasopharynx, trachea, tonsil
B. nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx
C. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx
D. pharyngeal tonsils, laryngopharynx, nasopharynx
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 63
The organs of Corti are located along the length of the ____ membrane.
A. Tectorial B. tonsilar C. Basilar
D. Vestibular
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
What structures are removed during UPPP?


A. Tonsils, adenoids, uvula, portion of the soft palate
B. Adenoids, tongue, lingual tonsils, portion of the soft palate C. Tonsils, adenoids, nasal cartilage, all of the soft palate
D. Adenoids, tonsils, tonsillar fossa, nasal cartilage
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 65
What fluid fills the spaces of the bony labyrinth?
A. Endolymph B. Lymph
C. Perilymph D. Periosteum
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 66
The seventh cranial nerve is also called the ____.
A. Vestibulocochlear nerve B. Facial nerve



C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve D. Vagus nerve
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 67
Another name for the malar bone is ____.
A. Orbital
B. Ethmoid C. Zygomatic D. Sphenoid
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 68
A craniotome with perforator attachment is used to ____.
A. Harvest a rib graft
B. Open the dura
C. Create a burr hole
D. Repair cranial defects
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 69
Which of the following is an action of epinephrine?
A. bronchodilation B. Vasoconstriction C. Analgesia
D. Anticoagulant
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 70
The skin is a ____.
A. mucous membrane B. cutaneous membrane C. Synovial membrane D. Serous membrane
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 71
If skin is taken from an unburned area of the patient and used as a transplant, it is called a/an ____.
A. Autograft B. Homograft C. Heterograft D. Dermagraft


Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 72
Which muscle is responsible for flexing the hand at the wrist?
A. Abductor pollicis brevis B. Extensor digitorum
C. Palmaris longus
D. Adductor pollicis
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 73
What medical term refers to the condition in which the digits of the hands or feet fail to separate?
A. Radial dysplasia B. Polydactyly
C. Syndactyly
D. Clubhand
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74
The condition causing the contraction of palmar fascia is known as ____.


A. De Quervain's disease B. Dupuytren's disease C. Trigger finger
D. Carpal tunnel
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 75
A cosmetic procedure performed on the eyelid is a ____.
A. Blepharoplasty
B. Suction lipectomy C. Rhinoplasty
D. Augmentation
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 76
Which procedure is not typically done under local anesthetic?
A. Blepharoplasty
B. Rhytidectomy
C. Rhinoplasty
D. Breast augmentation
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation


Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 77
Which of the following is a synovial fluid filled cyst that can arise from a tendon sheath or wrist joint?
A. Ganglion cyst
B. Trigger finger
C. Dupuytren’s disease
D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 78
What is used to create a pathway for electrical current to be returned from the patinet back to the ESU?
A. Bovie cord
B. Grounding pad C. Ground wire D. Conducting gel
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which machine found in the decontamination room uses cavitation?



A. Ultrasonic washer B. Washer sterilizer C. Dry heat
D. Flash sterilizer
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 80
A unidirectional positive -pressure flow of air that captures microbes to be filtered in known as _________.
A. Negative airflow B. Pressurized air C. Laminar airflow D. Sterile airflow
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 81
____________ means microbes and infection are absent.
A. Sterile
B. Surgically clean C. Decontaminated D. Disinfected
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)


Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Fluid bottles may be recapped and reused under what conditions?
A. The fluid is to be warmed
B. The bottle is sterile
C. The pourer is wearing gloves
D. None: the bottle may not be recapped
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 83
Which classification is given to bacteria that can survive in an environment with or without oxygen?
A. Facultative anaerobes B. Microaerophiles
C. Capnophiles
D. Obligate anaerobes
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 84
Which is the most commonly transmitted bacteria in the operating room? A. Candida albicans


B. Cornebacterium jeikeium C. Staphlococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pneumonia
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 85
Which microorganisms are capable of causing an UTI?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 86
Gas gangrene and cellulitis is caused by which microorganism?
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae B. Pasteurella multocida C. Clostridium perfringens D. E. coli
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 87
The scope used for visualization of a fetus in utero is called a(n) _____________.
A. Laryngoscope B. Fetoscope
C. Hysteroscope D. Colonoscope
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 88
Sponges used for procedures requiring smaller incisions are called _______.
A. Laparotomy B. Neurosurgical C. Raytec
D. Tonsil
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 89
A Tru-Cut needle is used _____.
A. To obtain a biopsy
B. During cardiovascular procedures
C. To introduce angioplasty-guiding catheters D. To irrigate open arteries


Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 90
Small, clear, plastic drapes with openings that are surrounded by an adhesive backing are called __________ drapes.
A. Incise
B. Isolation C. Reusable D. Aperture
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 91
Postoperative instrument handling involves all of the following steps EXCEPT __________.
A. Cleaning and decontamination B. Reassembly
C. Preparation
D. Distribution
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 92
Curved needle holders are generally used during ____________ procedures.

A. Orthopedic
B. Cardiovascular procedures C. Gynecological
D. Plastic and reconstructive
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 93
While the STSR is passing instruments, the surgeon is focused on the
A. Exchange
B. Procedure
C. Operating room setup D. Anesthesia delivery
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 94
Items are counted in which order for every procedure?
A. Sharps, sponges, instruments B. Instruments, sharps, sponges



C. Sponges, instruments, sharps D. Sponges, sharps, instruments
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 95
Which term means loss of heat from the patient's body to the environment?
A. Convection B. Rediation C. Conduction D. Evaporation
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 96
Which diagnostic imaging procedure allows the surgeon to view anatomic strutures during the surgical procedures?
A. Conventional X-ray B. Ultrasound
C. Fluoroscopy
D. MRI
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 97
The display and recording of the electrical activity of skeletal muscle is called a (n)
A. EEG
B. ECG
C. EMG
D. PET scan
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 98
Correct placement of indwelling catheters, tubes, and drains may be varified by ________________.
A. Radiography B. Pulse oximetry C. Ausculation
D. Endoscopy
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 99
Which diagnostic procedure uses high-frequency sound waves?
A. MRI
B. PET
C. Ultrasound D. CT


Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 100
The beta cells of the islets of Langerhans are responsible for the production of ________________.
A. Vitamin K
B. Glucagon
C. Insulin
D. Somatostatin
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 101
Modified radical mastectomy involves removal of _____________.
A. The breast, acillary lymph nodes, and pectoral muscles B. The breast and axillary lymph nodes
C. A wedge of breast tissue
D. The breast
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 102
Which of the following describes the anatomic area that will be prepped for a laparotomy?


A. Midchest to midthighs and bilaterally B. Chin to knees and bilaterally
C. Shoulders to hips and bilaterally
D. Midchest to iliac crests and bilaterally
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 103
Mastectomy is the removal of the ____________.
A. Entire mammary breast
B. Entire breast and pectoral muscles
C. Entire breast, pectoral muscles, and axillary lymph nodes
D. Tumor only, preserving subcutaneous tissue for reconstruction
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 104
Roux-en-Y technique is most commonly used to repair a(n) ____________.
A. Total gastrectomy B. Colon resection
C. Cholecystectomy D. End-loop ileostomy
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation


Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 105
The pH of vaginal fluid is _________.
A. Acidic B. Alkaline C. Neutral D. Base
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 106
The term D and C represents ______.
A. Disinfection and culture
B. Dilation and culture
C. Dilation and curettage
D. Desensitization and curettage
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 107
Cystocele is prolapse of the ________.
A. Bladder into the vaginal vault B. Rectum into the vaginal vault C. Uterus through the vagina


D. Intestine into the vaginal vault
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 108
A currette is a surgical instrument used to __________.

A. Dilate an opening
B. Marsupialize a cyst
C. Remove tissue by scraping D. Provide traction
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 109
Which female gland secretes a lubricating mucoid substance?
A. Cowper's gland
B. Pineal gland
C. Bartholin's gland D. Sudoriferous gland
Correct Answer: C


Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 110
What is the function of the iris?
A. To alter the shape of the crystalline lens during accommodation B. To regulate the amount of light entering the eye through the pupil C. To produce tears
D. To allow the optic nerve to carry visual impulses to the brain
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 111
Where are the lacrimal glands located?
A. On the surface of the conjunctiva B. Within the upper eyelids
C. Within the lower eyelids
D. In the lateral corners of the eye
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 112
Why is Gelfoam used in ENT surgical procedures? A. Achieve hemostasis


B. Reduce edema
C. Reduce high blood pressure D. Increase body temperature
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 113
What does the term apnea mean?
A. Not breathing
B. Cardiac arrest C. Deaf
D. Deviated septum
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 114
Panendoscopy may involve viewing of the __________.
A. Lungs
B. Stomach C. Esophagus D. Bronchi
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 115
What is a major concern when operating on the parotid gland?
A. Inability to produce saliva post-op B. Damange to the ossicles
C. Carotid artery
D. Facial nerve
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 116
During a tonsillectomy, which instrument can be used to put tension on the tonsil during dissection?
A. Jensen Middleton B. Long Allis
C. Rosen knife
D. Aufricht retractor
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 117
Crescent-shaped cartilage found in the TMJ and knee joints is the _________.
A. Symphysis B. Ramus
C. Meniscus D. Sagittal


Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 118
Which radiographic view shows the hard palate, nasal septum, orbital floor, and zygoma?
A. Water's view
B. Caldwell view
C. Panoramic view D. Lateral facial view
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 119
All are true regarding throat packs EXCEPT that ___________.
A. Throat packs consist of rolled gauze that contains a radiopaque marker
B. Throat packs are kept dry and used to prevent oral secretions, irrigation fluid, blood, and bone or tooth fragments from becoming lodged in the pharaynx C. The throat pack should be removed prior to extubation
D. The throat pack should be included in the formal count
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 120
Which of the following best describes the area of the skin preparation for a reduction mammoplasty?


A. Chest and breast, shoulders to xiphoid process
B. Chest and breast, chin to xiphoid process including axilla C. Chest and breast, chin to hips including axilla
D. Chest and breast, shoulders to hips
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 121
How many phalanges are in a normal hand?
A. 12 B. 14 C. 16 D. 18
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 122
Which of the following is a topical anesthetic inserted into the nose prior to a plastic nasal procedure?
A. Bupivacaine B. Tetracaine


C. Meperidine D. Fentanyl
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
Which type of instrument will be attached to the Mayo stand during a cleft palate repair?
A. Cottle elevator
B. Bookwalter
C. Weitlaner
D. Self-retaining mouth gag
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 124
Which type of flap allows the tissue to be transferred to remain attached to its blood supply?
A. Free flap
B. Pedicle flap C. Skin tag
D. De Quervain's
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 125
Which portion of the renal tubule system is responsible for increasing the surface area for enhanced absorption and secretion?
A. Bowman's capsule
B. Distal convoluted tubule C. Loop of Henle
D. Poximal convoluted tubule
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 126
The right kidney is located slightly lower that the left, due to the _________.
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Spleen
D. Transverse abdominal
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 127
The kidneys are bounded by the __________ muscles on the medical side.
A. Detrusor
B. Cremaster
C. Psoas
D. Transverse abdominal


Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 128
If the ureters are difficult to identify when the bladder is opened, intravenous __________ may facilitate locating the orifices.
A. Methylene blue B. Gentian violet C. Indigo carmine D. Omnipaque
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 129
A softening of adult bone due to a disorder in calcium and phosphorus metabolism is called _________.
A. Osteochondritis B. Osteogenesis C. Osteomalacia D. Osteonecrosis
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 130
Which style of cast is applied to the trunk, around the affected leg, and around half of the unaffected leg?


A. Long-leg cast B. Cylinder cast C. Hip spica
D. Body jacket
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 131
The coronary arteries arise form the ________.
A. Arota
B. Vena cavae
C. Pulmonary artery D. Subclavian artery
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 132
What medical term refers to the abdominal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity?
A. Pneumocentesis
B. Pneumothorax
C. Pleural effusion
D. Thoracic outlet syndrome
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation


Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 133
Which mechanical device is designed for circulatory support after cardiac procedure?
A. Cell saver
B. Fogarty embolectomy catheter C. Intra-aortic balloon pump
D. Arterial line
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 134
The trachea divides at the ________ into right and left bronchi.
A. Glottis
B. Carina
C. Epiglottis D. Bronchioles
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 135



Symptomatic lesions of the mediastinum are malignanat in _______% of all patients?
A. 50 B. 20 C. 60 D. 10
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 136
For the posterolateral position, the operating room personnel should have which of the following available?
A. 2 inch adhesive tape B. Beanbag
C. Extra arm board
D. Shoulder rests
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 137
Which veins receive blood from the brain, meninges, and deeper regions of the face and neck?
A. Brachiocephalic B. External jugular C. Internal jugular D. Common carotid
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)


Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
For an aortofemoral bypass, which statement is NOT correct?
A. The patient will be prepped from midchest to midthigh and as far as possible on each side. B. The circulator should ensure that blood is available for the patient.
C. The arterial incision is made with a #10 blade on a long #3 handle.
D. 2-0 or 3-0 silk ties can be used to ligate larger, deeper vessels
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 139
What graft material is not recommended to be used in the popliteal space?
A. PTFE
B. Porous Dacron graft
C. Saphenous vein
D. Specialized knitted velour Dacron graft
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 140
Which type of needle is appropriate for closing a blood vessel? A. Blunt


B. Conventional cutting C. Taper
D. Side cutting
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 141
The external iliac arteries branch into the ________ arteries.
A. Internal iliac B. Femoral
C. Celiac
D. Brachial
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 142
Which drug is used to suppress arterial vasospasm?
A. Avitene
B. Hypaque C. Papaverine D. Heparin
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 143
The _______ serves as a relay station for sensory impulses by channeling them to appropriate regions of the cortex for interpretation.
A. Hypothalamus B. Thalamus
C. Basal ganglia D. Pons
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 144
The medulla oblongata controls which visceral activity?
A. Cardiac
B. Vasomotor
C. Resporatory
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 145
A ventricular shunt can be placed distally in the _________.
A. Ventricle or the perineum
B. Atrium or the peritoneal cavity C. Atrium or the throacic cavity D. Ventricle or the aorta


Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 146
What is the best temperature for irrigation used on the brain?
A. Cold
B. Hot
C. Room temperature D. Body temperature
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 147
Which statement is NOT correct regarding the placement of the bone flap?
A. The bone flap is placed after the muscle layer is closed with an absorbable suture.
B. The bone flap is placed after the dura has been securely closed.
C. The bone flap remains on the sterile field throughout the procedure, typically in a solution of antibiotic saline. D. The bone flap can be fixated to the skull with the use of titanium miniplates and screws.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation



Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 148
The sphenoid bone forms __________.
A. A small portion of the sides and floor of the cranium.
B. A large portion of the sides and roof of the cranium.
C. Portions of the base of the cranium, sides of the skull, and base and sides for the orbits.
D. Portions of the roof and walls of the nasal cavity, the floor of the cranium, and walls of the orbits.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 149
The midbrain is located just below the _________.
A. Hypothalamus B. Pituitary
C. Thalamus
D. Pons
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 150
What nerve controls the voluntary muscles of the pharynx, larynx, palate, sternocleidomastoid, and trapezius?
A. Accessory B. Hypoglossal


C. Glossophryngeal D. Abducens
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 151
What name is given to the room in the surgery department that contains sinks for gross decontamination of instruments?
A. Substerile
B. Sterile storage C. Decontamination D. Instrument
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 152
The term PACU refers to the _________.
A. Post ambulatory care unit
B. Primary anesthesia care unit
C. Post anesthesia care unit
D. Preoperative ambulatory care unit
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 153
Permanent surgical specimens are usually sent to the pathologist in __________.
A. Saline
B. Formalin
C. A dry container D. A moist towel
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 154
Operating room walls should have which characteristic?
A. Surgically clean and tiled
B. Bright white to create a sense of sterility
C. Easy to clean with an antimicrobial solution D. Mini blinds for pateint privacy
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 155
The room where patients are "recovered" immediately following surgery is known as the ____________.
A. PACU B. JCAHO C. CPSD D. NCIU


Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 156
Which of the following is a reason a patient may be extubated in the recovery room instead of the operating room suite?
A. Tachypnea
B. Tachycardia
C. Patient can breathe unassisted
D. Patient cannot breathe unassisted.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 157
When stainless steel instruments are manually cleaned, a (n) ________ should be used to avoid scratching the surface of the instrument.
A. Circular motion
B. Abrasive cleanser
C. Wire brush
D. Back and forth motion
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
What is a limitation of using water as a presoaking solution?


A. Ineffective at removing dried debris B. Too expensive
C. Not readily available
D. Not a sterile solution
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 159
Why should saline NOT be used to clean stainless steel surgical instruments?
A. Saline is not virucidal
B. Salt will pit the stainless steel C. Saline is not sterile
D. Saline is expensive
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 160
An enzyme is usually used as a (n) ____________.
A. Sterilant
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
D. Soaking solution
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation


Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 161
Which of the following reflects the basic values for health care practice?
A. Laws
B. Standards
C. Guidelines
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 162
Accountability is defined as a (n) ___________.

A. Disclosure B. Obligation C. Threat
D. Evaluation
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 163


Negligence is a breach of duty and is defined as ____________.
A. An omission B. Perjury
C. Tort
D. Larceny
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 164
When taking hot surgical instruments from a steam autoclave, the surgical technologist is responsible for cooling the instruments with __________.
A. Alcohol
B. Sterile saline C. Glutaraldehyde D. Sterile water
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 165
What must be done to electrical devices in the operating room to prevent the risk of burns to the patient?
A. Grounded properly
B. Turned off prior to use C. Tested frequently
D. Both A and C
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)


Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Loss or mishandling of a specimen could be considered negligence and could result in __________.
A. Another surgical procedure
B. Improper specimen preparation C. Improper specimen analysis
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 167
The only method used to ensure the sterility of items is ____________.
A. Chemical indicator strips B. Biological indicators
C. Mechanical indicators
D. Bowie-Dick test
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 168
Implied consent may apply when ________. A. Consulting physicians agree


B. The patient is conscious
C. Conditions are discovered during surgery D. The patient is an emancipated minor
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 169
In the health care field, the term _________ is used broadly to refer to the placing of information into a patient's medical record.
A. Register
B. Remodeling C. Documenting D. Diagram
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 170
The dense connective tissue covering outer surface of bone diaphysis is termed:
A. Perichondrium B. Periosteum
C. Endosteum
D. Exofibrium
E. Articular cartilage
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation


Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 171
Which of the following bones is considered a sesamoid bone:
A. Sternum B. Ethmoid C. Femur D. Patella E. Phalanx
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 172
These two components in bone are responsible for the hardness and pliability of bone:
A. Osteoclasts & collagen
B. Mineralized salts & osteocytes C. Mineralized salts & collagen D. Collagen & elastic fibers
E. Collagen & mesenchyme
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 173
A fracture in the shaft of a long bone would be a break in the: A. Epiphysis


B. Metaphysis
C. Diaphysis
D. Epiphyseal plate E. Mesenchyme
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 174
Yellow marrow consists of:
A. Osteoprogenitor cells
B. Blood cell progenitor cells C. Hyaline carilage
D. Adipose
E. Spongy bone
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 175
Chondroblasts produce:
A. Basement membranes B. Bone matrix
C. Cartilage matrix
D. Mesothelium
E. Endothelium
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)


Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
These structures are at the center of compact bone lamellae and carry blood vessels along the bone length:

A. Haversain canals B. Canaliculi
C. Perforating canals D. Osteocytes
E. Lacunae
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 177
The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone matrix once it has formed is:
A. Osteoclasts B. Chondrocytes C. Ostecytes
D. Fibroblasts
E. Osteoblasts
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation


Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 178
Soft connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones at birth are:
A. An indication of microcephaly B. Frontal sinuses
C. Epiphyseal plates
D. Cribriform plates
E. Fontanelles
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 179
Endochondral and intramembraneous are two mechanisms of:
A. Bone remodeling
B. Embryonic skeletal ossification C. Controlling blood calcium levels D. Carilage synthesis
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 180
Which of the following is not a cranial suture: A. Epiphyseal


B. Lambdoidal C. Coronal
D. Sagittal
E. Squamous
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: