Certified Tester Foundation Level CTFL Questions + Answers

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QUESTION 1
During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work, which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately, the fault is not found by software testing and is released into live. What is the DEFINITE consequence of this mistake?
A. The system will fail, causing a defect.
B. If the defect is executed, the system may fail.
C. Loss of money, time, or business reputation.
D. Contractual requirements have not been met by testing.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 2
During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?
A. Test Execution. B. Test Planning. C. Test Design. D. Test Analysis.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 3
Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project’s system test level?
A. Training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute.
B. Outsourcing test design and execution to a different company.
C. Having the company’s independent test team design and execute the tests.
D. Minimising contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 4
Which of the following apply to System Testing?
a) May satisfy legal requirements.
b) Can use system specifications as a test basis.
c) Often the responsibility of business users.
d) Main goal is to establish confidence.
e) Should focus on the communication between systems.
A. a and c. B. b and d. C. a and b. D. c and e.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 5
When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?



A. System and Component test levels only.
B. All ‘Development’ test levels, i.e. those before Acceptance testing. C. Component and Component integration test levels only.
D. All test levels.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 6
Which of the following are triggers for Maintenance testing?
a) System migration from one platform to another. b) Retirement of a system.
c) Preparation for an audit of a system.
d) Modifications to a system.
e) Development of a whole new system.
A. a, c and d. B. b, c and e. C. a, d and e. D. a, b and d.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 7
Which defect below is MOST likely to be found by a review during static testing?
A. Incorrect interface specifications. B. Old versions of software in use. C. Performance bottlenecks.



D. Broken links to web addresses.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 8
You are performing a review of your colleague’s test cases based on the following test basis document:
The Test Cases are as follows:



TC1. Success – valid ‘User Name’ and ‘Password’; Customer Menu displayed
TC2. Failure – ‘User Name’ field has blank entry; Error Number 12 displayed
TC3. Failure – ‘User Id’ entered does not exist on database (i.e. unregistered user); Error Number 23 displayed TC4. Failure – ‘Password’ entered does not match user’s password on database; Error Number 24 displayed
You are guided by the following checklist in your review:
C1. There must be one test case to cover success
C2. There must be one test case for each error path (e.g. validation failure)
C3. Each test case must use terminology consistent with the test basis document (field names, error numbering, etc.)
Record a separate defect for each missing test case (checklist items C1 and C2) and for each test case that does not meet checklist item C3.
How many defects should you record?
A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 9
A car insurance policy has 3 rates of insurance depending on the age of the driver. For drivers aged between 17 and 25 inclusive they are charged at rate A, drivers aged between 26 and 50 inclusive are charged at rate B and those drivers aged over 50 are charged at rate C.
You are designing test cases, which of the following three ages would test all valid equivalence partitions and therefore test rate A, B and C?
A. 26, 45, 50. B. 10, 21, 55. C. 20, 35, 65. D. 17, 25, 50.
Correct Answer: C



Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 10
A student needs to score at least 50 points to pass. If they score at least 100 points they will achieve a merit and if they score at least 150 points they will achieve a distinction.
Which two values are in the same partition?
A. 45 and 55. B. 55 and 120. C. 50 and 60. D. 45 and 170.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 11
A holiday club restricts those booking the holiday, to people between the ages of 18 and 30 inclusive.
Using three-point boundary values, what ages would be required to test the lower and upper boundary?
A. 17, 18, 19, 29, 30, 31. B. 17, 18, 19, 30, 31, 32. C. 18, 19, 20, 28, 29, 30. D. 16, 17, 18, 30, 31, 32.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 12
Given the following state transition diagram where SS is the start state:
Which of the following answers describes a test case that only uses valid transitions to exercise all states, using the minimum number of transitions?
A. SS-S3-SS-S1-S3-S2. B. SS-S3-S2-S1.
C. SS-S1-S2-S3.
D. SS-S1-S3-S2.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 13
Which statement about deriving test cases from a use case is TRUE?
A. Test cases are designed to exercise the defined behaviours. B. There should only be one test case for each use case.
C. Test cases can only be derived if there is an activity diagram. D. It is not possible to measure use case test coverage.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation



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QUESTION 14
Which of the following is an approach that can be used for exploratory testing?
A. Time-boxed test sessions are created, during which a tester uses a test charter containing test objectives to guide the testing. B. A tester methodically executes tests from a list of possible failures, based on experience, defect and failure data.
C. A tester analyses, designs and implements tests based on external rules and standards.
D. Tests are designed based on the guidance of stakeholders and experts outside the test team.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 15
Which of the following are benefits of an independent test team, and which are drawbacks?
a) Independent testers can find different defects.
b) Developers may put less emphasis on quality.
c) Independent testers can be seen as the reason for delayed projects.
d) Independent testers can verify assumptions made during the specification of a system.
A. a and b are benefits, c and d are drawbacks. B. b and c are benefits, a and d are drawbacks. C. a and d are benefits, b and c are drawbacks. D. c and d are benefits, a and b are drawbacks.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 16
Tests have been specified for the latest software release and users have prioritised these.


However, there are some dependencies between tests as shown in the table below (e.g. Test ID. ‘123’ cannot be run until Test ID. ‘456’ has been successfully completed).
Which test execution schedule best meets the prioritisation and dependency conditions?
A. 3, 5, 7, 10, 2, 4, 6, 8, 9, 1. B. 5, 7, 4, 3, 9, 10, 1, 6, 8, 2. C. 6, 1, 2, 9, 4, 3, 5, 7, 8, 10. D. 1, 4, 3, 5, 2, 7, 9, 10, 6, 8.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 17
Testing effort can depend on a number of factors, which one of the following is MOST likely to impact the amount of effort required?
A. The predicted number of defects and the amount of rework required. B. The ratio of developers to testers in the project team.
C. The planned use of a project management tool to schedule tasks.
D. The responsibilities for testers and developers being clearly defined.



Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 18
Which of the following BEST describes how configuration management supports the test process?
A. It enables the tester to reproduce the tested item through unique identification and version control.
B. It enables the tester to systematically design test conditions, cases and data.
C. It enables incidents to be tracked from discovery and classification to correction and confirmation of the solution.
D. It helps the test manager to decide how best to integrate and coordinate the testing activities into the software life cycle.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 19
Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?
A. The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it. B. The consequences of potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action. C. The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring.
D. The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 20
Which of the following are product risks?



a) Failure prone software delivered.
b) Software does not perform its intended functions. c) Insufficient staff available for testing.
d) Test environment not ready on time.
e) Poor data integrity and quality.
A. b, c and e. B. b, d and e. C. a, b and e. D. b, c and d.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 21
An issue has been found in a production system, where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it. Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect during Performance testing?
A. Dynamic analysis tool.
B. Test Execution tool.
C. Configuration management tool. D. Coverage measurement tool.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 22
You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company. Which one of the following is the BEST approach?
A. Selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality to find the most defects.
B. Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool’s script.



C. Ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the tool’s script for ease of maintenance.
D. Keeping expected results separate from the automation tool to allow the testers to check the results.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
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