2. Note that each f on M induces a covector field of. Then at each point p, the cotangent vector df and the tangent vect

Business, Finance, Economics, Accounting, Operations Management, Computer Science, Electrical Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, Civil Engineering, Chemical Engineering, Algebra, Precalculus, Statistics and Probabilty, Advanced Math, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Nursing, Psychology, Certifications, Tests, Prep, and more.
Post Reply
answerhappygod
Site Admin
Posts: 899604
Joined: Mon Aug 02, 2021 8:13 am

2. Note that each f on M induces a covector field of. Then at each point p, the cotangent vector df and the tangent vect

Post by answerhappygod »

2 Note That Each F On M Induces A Covector Field Of Then At Each Point P The Cotangent Vector Df And The Tangent Vect 1
2 Note That Each F On M Induces A Covector Field Of Then At Each Point P The Cotangent Vector Df And The Tangent Vect 1 (51.84 KiB) Viewed 24 times
2. Note that each f on M induces a covector field of. Then at each point p, the cotangent vector df and the tangent vector X would evaluate to some number. So df(x) is a function M + R. Show that df(x)= X(f), i.e., the two are the same. (Hint: just use definitions and calculate directly.) 3. If X,Y :V + V are vector fields, then note that X OY :V +V might not be a vector field. (Leibniz rule might fail.) However, show that X - Y - YoX is always a vector field. 4. On a related note, show that if A, B are skew-symmetric matrices, then AB - BA is still skew- symmetric. (Skew-symmetric matrices actually corresponds to certain vector fields on the manifold of orthogonal matrices. So this is no coincidence.)
a Exercise 1.7.2 (What is a derivative). The discussions in this problem holds for all manifolds M. But for simplicities sake, suppose M =Rfor this problem. Let V be the space of all analytic functions from M to R. Here analytic means f(1,9, 2) is a infinite polynomial series (its Taylor expansion) with variables x, y, 2. Approximately f(1,9, 2) = 20 +212 +day+ 232 +04:22 +agry+0622+27y2 + ..., and things should converge always. Then a dual vector v EV* is said to be a "derivation at P EM" if it satisfy the following Leibniz rule (or product rule): v(f9) = f(p) (g) +g(p)u(f). (Note the similarity with your traditional product rule ($9)' (*) = f(x)g' ()+g()f'(x).) Prove the following: 1. Constant functions in V must be sent to zero by all derivations at any point. PI 2. Let 2,4, 2 € V be the coordinate function. Suppose p= then for any derivation v at p, then we have v((2 - P.)f) = f(p)u(x), v((y – P2) f) = f(p)(y) and v((2 - P3)f) = f(p)+(2). P1 3. Letr, y, 2 E V be the coordinate function. Suppose p = P2 then for any derivation v at p, then we have v((r - P)"(y – P2)(2 – Ps)) = 0 for any non-negative integers a, b,c such that a+b+c>1. P1 4. Let 2, 4,2 € V be the coordinate function. Suppose p= P2, then for any derivation v at p, v(f) = (p)u(x) + (p)+(y) + (p)u(2). (Hint: use the Taylor expansion of f at p.) [u() 5. Any derivation v at p must be eractly the directional derivative operator V, where v = (y) (v(2)] P21 P3 P3 P3
Join a community of subject matter experts. Register for FREE to view solutions, replies, and use search function. Request answer by replying!
Post Reply