Let fn(x) = x + 1/n, x ∈ R. Show that ((fn)^2 ) does not converge uniformly to (f∗)^2 on R.

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answerhappygod
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Let fn(x) = x + 1/n, x ∈ R. Show that ((fn)^2 ) does not converge uniformly to (f∗)^2 on R.

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Let fn(x) = x + 1/n, x ∈ R.
Show that ((fn)^2 ) does not converge uniformly to (f∗)^2 on
R.
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