Can two normally distributed samples have the same mean and
standard deviation but different sums of squares? Why or why not?
PLEASE EXPLAIN IN SIMPLEST TERMS POSSIBLE. I know the answer is yes
as I've asked it twice already but I have not understood either
response, but I'm not sure WHY. (Very beginner stats level here so
please take that into consideration when explaining, thank
you!)
Can two normally distributed samples have the same mean and standard deviation but different sums of squares? Why or why
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