Answer Happy

he patient is a 33-year-old male who presented with aseveral-week history of pain in his left groin associated with abulge. Examination revealed that his left groin did indeed have abulge and his right groin was normal. We discussed the procedure aswell as the choice of anesthesia. It was decided to take thepatient to surgery for a left initial inguinal hernia repair. Afterprepping and draping, general anesthesia was induced. The floor ofthe inguinal canal was examined and the patient did appear to havea weakness there. There was no evidence of an indirect hernia. Meshwas fashioned, placed in the inguinal canal, and tacked to thepubic tubercle. The internal ring was recreated. The remainder ofthe mesh was tucked underneath the external oblique fascia. Thewound was then sutured closed. The procedure was tolerated well andthe patient was transferred to the recovery room in goodcondition.
icd 10 pcs code?