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2. Monomers are joined together to form larger polymers through Such a reaction releases a molecule of 3. Polymers are broken down into monomers through the chemical reaction called Such a reaction consumes a molecule of 4. Table sugar is a. glucose, a monosaccharide b. glucose, a disaccharide c. sucrose, a monosaccharide d. sucrose, a disaccharide 5. When two molecules of glucose (C6​H12​O6​) are joined together by a dehydration reaction, what are the formulas of the two products? (Hint: No atoms are gained or lost) 6. One molecule of dietary fat is made by joining three molecules of to one molecule of What is the formal name of the resulting molecule? 7. By definition, what type of fatty acid has double bonds? a. steroid c. unsaturated b. triglyceride d. saturated 8. Humans and other animals cannot digest wood because they a. cannot digest any carbohydrates. b. cannot chew it fine enough. c. lack the enzyme needed to break down cellulose. d. get no nutrients from it. 9. Explain how it could be possible to change an amino acid within a protein but not affect that protein's function. 10. Most proteins can easily dissolve in water. Where in the shape of a protein would you find hydrophobic amino acids? 11. A shortage of phosphorus in the soil would make it especially difficult for a plant to manufacture a. DNA. c. cellulose b. proteins. d. fatty acids. 12. Nucleic acids are polymers of monomers 13. Name three similarities between DNA and RNA. Name three differences. 14. What is the structure of a gene? What is the function of a gene?
1. You look into a microscope and view an unknown cell. What might you see that would tell you that the cell is eukaryotic? a. DNA b. a nucleoid region c. a plasma membrane d. membrane-bound organelles 2. Explain how each word in the term fluid mosaic describes the structure of a membrane 3. Identify which of the following structures includes all the others in the list: rough ER, smooth ER, endomembrane system, the Golgi apparatus. 4. A large amount of ER can be found in liver cells to detoxify 5. Why do cell walls make good targets for antibiotic drugs? 6. Name two similarities in the structure or function of chloroplasts and mitochondria. Name two differences. 7. Match the following organelles with their functions: a. nucleus 1. Iocomotion b. flagella 2. protein export c. mitochondria 3. gene control d. Golgi apparatus 4. digestion e. lysosomes 5. cellular respiration 8. DNA controls the cell by transmitting genetic messages that result in protein production. Place the foliowing organelles in the order that represents the flow of genetic information from the DNA through the cell: nuclear pores, ribosomes, nucleus, rough ER, Golgi apparatus.
1. Describe the energy transformations that occur when a dog jumps onto atruck. 2. is the capacity to perform work, while is a measure of randomness. 3. The label on a tin of tomato soup says that it contains 56 Calories. If you could convert all of that energy to heat, you could raise the temperature of how much water by 15∘C ? 4. Why does removing a phosphate group from the triphosphate tail in a molecule of ATP release energy? 5. Your digestive system uses a variety of enzymes to break down large food molecules into smaller ones that your cells can assimilate. A generic name for a digestive enzyme is hydrolase. What is the chemical basis for that name? (Hint: Review Figure 3.4) 6. Explain how an inhibitor can disrupt an enzyme's action without binding to the active site. 7. If someone at the other end of a room smokes a cigarette, you may breathe in some smoke. The movement of smoke is similar to what type of transport? a. osmosis b. diffusion c. facilitated diffusion d. active transport 8. Explain why it is not enough to say that a solution is "hypertonic" 9. What is the primary difference between passive and active transport in terms of concentration gradients? 10. Pumping sodium out of an animal nerve cell requires energy. What type of transport is this? a. active transport b. osmosis c. facilitated diffusion d. diffusion
1. Which of the following statements is a correct distinction between autotrophs and heterotrophs? a. Only heterotrophs require chemical compounds from the environment. b. Cellular respiration is unique to heterotrophs. c. Only heterotrophs have mitochondria. d. Only autotrophs can live on nutrients that are entirely inorganic. 2. Why are plants called producers? Why are animals called consumers? 3. How is your breathing related to your cellular respiration? 4. Of the three stages of cellular respiration, which produces the most ATP molecules per glucose? 5. is regenerated during fermentation 6. The poison cyanide acts by blocking a key step in the electron transport chain. Knowing this, explain why cyanide kills so quickly. 7. Celis can harvest the most chemical energy from which of the following? a. an NADH molecule c. six CO2​ molecules b. a glucose molecule d. two pyruvic acid molecules 8. is a metabolic pathway common to both fermentation and cellular respiration. 9. Physicians find that a child is born with a rare disease in which mitochondria are missing from certain skeletal muscle cells but her muscle cells function. Not surprisingly, they also find that a. the muscles contain large amounts of lactic acid following even mild physical exercise. b. the muscles contain large amounts of carbon dioxide following even mild physical exercise c. the muscles require extremely high levels of oxygen to function. d. the muscle cells cannot split glucose to pyruvic acid. 10. A glucose-fed yeast cell is moved from an aerobic environment to an anaerobic one. For the cell to continue to generate ATP at the same rate, approximately how much glucose must it consume in the anaerobic environment compared with the aerobic environment?
6. When light strikes chlorophyll molecules, they lose electrons, which are ultimately replaced by splitting molecules of 7. Which of the following are produced by reactions that take place in the thylakoids and are consumed by reactions in the stroma? a. CO2​ and H2​O b. NADP' and ADP c. ATP and NADPH d. glucose and O2​ 8. The carbon atoms that enter the Calvin cycle as CO2​ are used to make 9. Of the following metabolic processes, which is common to photosynthesis and cellular respiration? a. reactions that convert light energy to chemical energy b. reactions that split H2​O molecules and release O2​ c. reactions that store energy by pumping H+across membranes d. reactions that convert CO2​ to sugar
1. The light reactions take place in the structures of the chloroplast called the while the Calvin cycle takes place in the 2. In terms of the spatial organization of photosynthesis within the chloroplast, what is the advantage of the light reactions producing NADPH and ATP on the stroma side of the thylakoid membrane? 3. Which of the following equations best summarizes photosynthesis? a. 6CO2​+6H2​O+6O2​→C6​H12​O6​ b. 6CO2​+6H2​O→C6​H12​O6​+6O2​ c. 6CO2​+6O2​→C6​H12​O6​+6H2​O d. C6​H12​O6​+6O2​→6CO2​+6H2​O 4. Explain how the name "photosynthesis" describes what this process accomplishes. 5. What color of light is the least effective in driving photosynthesis? Why?
9. Tumors that remain at their site of origin are called and tumors that can migrate to other body tissues are called 10. A diploid body (somatic) cell from a fruit fly contains eight chromosomes. This means that different combinations of chromosomes are possible in its gametes. 11. Although nondisjunction is a random event, there are many more people with an extra chromosome 21, which causes Down syndrome, than people with an extra chromosome 3 or chromosome 16 . Explain.
1. Which of the following is not a function of mitosis in humans? a. repair of wounds c. production of gametes from diploid cells b growth d. replacement of lost or damaged cells 2. In what sense are the two daughter cells produced by mitosis identical? 3. Why is it hard to observe individual chromosomes in interphase? 4. A biochemist observes cells growing in the laboratory. A cell that completes the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis will a. have less genetic material than it started with. b. not have completed anaphase. c have its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell. d. have two nuclei. 5. What phases of mitosis are opposites in terms of changes in the nucleus? 6. Complete the following table to compare mitosis and meiosis 7. If an intestinal cell in a dog contains 78 chromosomes, a dog sperm cell would contain chromosomes. 8. A micrograph of a dividing cell from a mouse shows 19 chromosomes, each consisting of two sister chromatids. During which stage of meiosis could this micrograph have been taken? (Explain your answer.)
1. The genetic makeup of an organism is called its and the physical traits of an organism are called its 2. Which of Mendel's laws is represented by each statement? a. Alleles of each pair of homologous chromosomes separate independently during gamete formation b. Alleles segregate during gamete formation; fertilization creates pairs of alleles once again. 3. Edward was found to be heterozygous (Ss) for the sickle - cell trait. The alleles represented by the letters S and s are a. on the X and Y chromosomes b. linked. c. on homologous chromosomes. d. both present in each of Edward's sperm cells. 4. Whether an allele is dominant or recessive depends on a. how common the allele is, relative to other alleles b2​ whether it is inherited from the mother or the father. c. whether it or another allele determines the phenotype when both are present: d. whether or not it is linked to other genes. 5. Two fruit flies with eyes of the usual red color are crossed, and their offspring are as follows: 77 red-eyed males, 71 ruby'eyed males, 152 redeyed females. The gene that controls whether eyes are red or ruby is and the allele for ruby eyes is a. autosomal (carried on an autosome); dominant b. autosomal, recessive c. sex-linked; dominant d. sex-linked; recessive 6. All the offspring of a white hen and a black rooster are gray. The simplest explanation for this pattern of inheritance is a. pleiotropy. c. codominance. b. sex linkage. d. incomplete dominance. 7. A man who has type B blood and a woman who has type A blood could have children of which of the following phenotypes? (Hint: Review Figure 9.20.) a. A,B, or O c. AB or O b. AB only d. A,B,AB, or O 8. Duchenne muscuiar dystrophy is a sex-linked recessive disorder characterized by a progressive loss of muscle tissue. Neither Rudy nor Carla has Duchenne muscular dystrophy, but their first son does have it. If the couple has a second child, what is the probability that he or she will also have the disease?
1. A molecule of DNA contains two polymer strands called made by bonding together many monomers called 2. Name the three parts of every nucleotide. 3. List these terms in order of size from largest to smallest: chromosome, codon, gene, nucleotide. 4. A scientist inserts a radioactively labeled DNA molecule into a bacterium. The bacterium replicates this DNA molecule and distributes one daughter molecule (double helix) to each of two daughter cells. How much radioactivity will the DNA in each of the two daughter cells contain? Why? 5. Which mRNA nucleotide triplet encodes the amino acid tryptophan (see Figure 10.10)? During translation, an amino-acid-conjugated tRNA binds to an mRNA nucleotide triplet via its anticodon. What is the nucleotide sequence of the tryptophan's tRNA anticodon? What is the corresponding original codon on the DNA molecule that the mRNA is transcribed from? 6. Describe the process by which the information in a gene is transcribed and translated into a protein. Correctly use these terms in your description: tRNA, amino acid, start codon, transcription, mRNA, gene, codon, RNA polymerase, ribosome, translation, anticodon, peptide bond, stop codon. 7. Match the following molecules with the cellular process or processes in which they are primarily involved. a. ribosomes 1. DNA replication b. tRNA 2. transcription c. DNA polymerases 3. translation d. RNA polymerase e. MRNA
8. A geneticist finds that a particular mutation has no effect on the polypeptide encoded by the gene. This mutation probably involves a. deletion of one nucleotide. b. alteration of the start codon. c. insertion of one nucleotide. d. substitution of one nucleotide. 9. Scientists have discovered how to put together a bacteriophage with the protein coat of phage A and the DNA of phage B. If this composite phage were allowed to infect a bacterium, the phages produced in the cell would have a. the protein of A and the DNA of B. b. the protein of B and the DNA of A c. the protein and DNA of A. d. the protein and DNA of B. 10. How do some viruses reproduce without ever having DNA? 11. HIV requires an enzyme called to convert its RNA genome to a DNA version. Why is this enzyme a particularly good target for anti-AIDS drugs? (Hint: Would you expect such a drug to harm the human host?)
1. Place these levels of classification in order from least inclusive to most inclusive: class, domain, family, genus, kingdom, order, phylum, species 2. Which of the following is a true statement about Charles Darwin? a. He was the first to discover that living things can change, or evolve. b. He based his theory on the inheritance of acquired traits. c. He proposed natural selection as the mechanism of evolution. d. He was the first to realize that Earth is more than 6,000 years old. 3. How did the insights of Lyell and other geologists influence Darwin's thinking about evolution? 4. In a population with two alleles for a particular genetic locus, B and b, the allele frequency of B is 07 . If this population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the frequency of heterozygotes? What is the frequency of homozygous dominants? What is the frequency of homozygous recessives? 5. Define fitness from an evolutionary perspective. 6. Which of the following processes is the ultimate source of the genetic variation that serves as raw material for evolution? a. sexual reproduction b. mutation c. genetic drift d. natural selection 7. Which of the following is not a requirement of natural selection? a. genetic variation b. catastrophic events c. differential reproductive success d. overproduction of offspring 8. Compare and contrast how the bottleneck effect and the founder effect can lead to genetic drift. 9. Garter snakes with different color patterns behave differently when threatened. Of the three general outcomes of natural selection (directional, disruptive, or stabilizing), this example illustrates
2. Identify each of the following reproductive barriers as prezygotic or postzygotic a. One lilac species lives on acidic soil, another on basic soil. b. Mallard and pintail ducks mate at different times of the year. c. Two species of leopard frogs have different mating calls d. Hybrid offspring of two species of jimsonweed always die before reproducing e. Pollen of one kind of pine tree cannot fertilize another kind. 3. Why is a small, isolated population more likely to undergo speciation than a large one? 4. Many species of plants and animals adapted to desert conditions probably did not arise there. Their success in living in deserts could be due to structures that originally had one use but became adapted for different functions. 5. Mass extinctions a. cut the number of species to the few survivors left today. b. resulted mainly from the separation of the continents. c. occurred regularly, about every million years. d. were followed by diversification of the survivors. 6. The animals and plants of India are almost completely different from the species in nearby Southeast Asia. Why might this be true? a. They have become separated by convergent evolution. b. The climates of the two regions are completely different. c. India is in the process of separating from the rest of Asia. d. India was a separate continent until relatively recently. 7. A paleontologist estimates that when a particular rock formed, it contained 12mg of the radioactive isotope potassium-40. The rock now contains 3mg of potassium-40. The half-life of potassium-40 is 31.3 billion years. From this information, you can conclude that the rock is approximately billion years old 8. Why are biologists careful to distinguish similarities due to homology from similarities due to analogy when constructing phylogenetic trees? 9. In the three-domain system, which domain contains eukaryotic organisms?
Place these levels of ecological study in order from the least to the most comprehensive: community ecology, ecosystem ecology, organismal ecology, population ecology. 2. Name several abiotic factors that might affect the community of organisms living inside a home fish tank. 3. Arctic fox changes the color of fur to camouflage against winter snow. This anatomical response is known as which is a change.
4. Which of the following sea creatures might be described as a pelagic animal of the aphotic zone? a. a coral reef fish c. an intertidal snail b. a giant clam near a deep-sea d. a deep-sea squid hydrothermal vent 5. Identify the following biomes on the graph below: tundra, northern coniferous forest, desert, temperate grassland, temperate broadleaf forest, and tropical forest. 6. You board a ten-hour circumpolar flight from Finland to Russia. The fight starts and ends in the same biome. You are most likely in a biome. 7. What three abiotic factors account for the rarity of trees in arctic tundra? 8. What free-floating microscopic animals inhabit the pelagic photic zone of oceans? 9. What is the greenhouse effect' How is the greenhouse effect related to global warming? 10. The recent increase in atmospheric CO2​ concentration is mainly a result of an increase in a. plant growth. b. the absorption of heat radiating from Earth. c. the burning of fossil fuels and wood. d. cellular respiration by the increasing human population 11. How are changes in temperature affecting the map of terrestrial biomes?
1. Currently, the number one cause of biodiversity loss is 2. According to the concept of competitive exclusion, a. two species cannot coexist in the same habitat b. extinction or emigration is the only possible result of competitive interactions. c. intraspecific competition results in the success of the best-adapted individuals. d. two species cannot share exactly the same niche in a community. 3. Which of the following best describes a commensal interspecific interaction? a. +10 b. +1+ c. +1− d. −1− 4. Match each organism with its trophic level (you may choose a level more than once). a. alga 1. decomposer b. grasshopper 2. producer  c. zooplankton ​ 3. tertiary consumer ​ d. eagle 4 secondary consumer e. fungus 5. primary consumer 5. Why are the top predators in food chains most severely affected by pesticides such as DDT? 6. An episode that alters biological communities by destroying organisms and changing the availability of resources is known as a 7. According to the energy pyramid, why is eating grain-fed beef a relatively inefficient means of obtaining the energy trapped by photosynthesis?