Answer Happy

QUESTION 1
Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
A. Project charter
B. Enterprise environmental factors C. Stakeholder register
D. Organizational process assets
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
A. Resource calendar
B. Tight matrix
C. Team-building activity D. Focus group
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:




QUESTION 3
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling C. Planning
D. Executing
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Human Resource Management C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan D. Project charter
Correct Answer: A



Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
A. Responses B. Appetite
C. Tolerance D. Attitude
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives? A. Plan Risk Management



B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?
A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix C. Project management plan updates D. Project documents updates
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:
A. Project B. Plan
C. Program D. Portfolio
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:



QUESTION 11
The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:
A. Plan Risk Management.
B. Plan Risk Responses.
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?
A. Planning B. Executing C. Closing D. Initiating
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:
A. Project management plan. B. Project charter.
C. Work breakdown structure. D. Stakeholder register.



Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:
A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders. B. Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.
C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.
D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?
A. Salience
B. Influence/impact C. Power/interest D. Power/influence
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Through whom do project managers accomplish work?



A. Consultants and stakeholders
B. Stakeholders and functional managers C. Project team members and consultants D. Project team members and stakeholders
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?
A. Plan Stakeholder Management
B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement D. Control Stakeholder Engagement
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:
A. organizational skills B. technical skills
C. communication skills D. hard skills
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation



Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:
A. management B. response
C. tolerance
D. appetite
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:
A. Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.
B. Occur at random times in the project plans.
C. Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.
D. Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be: A. Continuous



B. Discrete C. Regulated D. Arbitrary
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?
A. Budget estimates
B. Risk matrix
C. Requirements documentation D. Procurement documents
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?
A. Uniform
B. Continuous C. Discrete
D. Linear
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:



QUESTION 24
Which stakeholder approves a project's result?
A. Customer
B. Sponsor
C. Seller
D. Functional manager
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Plan Scope Management C. Define Scope
D. Define Activities
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:
A. Available organizational assets B. Project staff assignments
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Enterprise environmental factors



Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:
A. a Knowledge Area
B. a Process Group
C. program management D. portfolio management
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?
A. Control Quality
B. Monitor and Control Project Work C. Control Scope
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Project management processes ensure the:



A. alignment with organizational strategy
B. efficient means to achieve the project objectives C. performance of the project team
D. effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:
A. Manage the timely completion of the project.
B. Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.
C. Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun. D. Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:
A. change control tools B. expert judgment
C. meetings
D. analytical techniques
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation



Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?
A. Work breakdown structure B. Requirements document C. Project charter
D. Project management plan
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:
A. performance measurement criteria B. source selection criteria
C. product acceptance criteria
D. phase exit criteria
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?
A. Identify Risks
B. Plan Risk Management



C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which element does a project charter contain?
A. Management reserves
B. Work breakdown structure C. Stakeholder list
D. Stakeholder register
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:
A. tangible B. targeted C. organized D. variable
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:



QUESTION 37
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:
A. appetite
B. tolerance
C. threshold
D. management
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Plan Human Resource Management D. Develop Project Team
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?
A. Information management systems B. Work performance reports
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Data gathering and representation



Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:
A. portfolio
B. program
C. selection
D. sub portfolio
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
The stakeholder register is an output of:



A. Identify Stakeholders.
B. Plan Stakeholder Management.
C. Control Stakeholder Engagement. D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. change requests
B. team performance assessments C. project staff assignments
D. project documents updates
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:
A. negotiation
B. organizational theory C. meeting
D. networking
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation



Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Collect Requirements
C. Sequence Activities
D. Direct and Manage Project Work
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:
A. Historical information and the lessons-learned database.
B. Historical information and the stakeholder register.
C. Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database. D. Project documents and historical information.
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?
A. 0.45 B. 0.56 C. 0.70



D. 1.36
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?
A. Push
B. Pull
C. Interactive D. Iterative
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Most experienced project managers know that:
A. every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide. B. there is no single way to manage a project.
C. project management techniques are risk free.
D. there is only one way to manage projects successfully.
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50



The product scope description is used to:
A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project.
B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Perform Integrated Change Control D. Team performance assessment
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?
A. Risk register
B. Risk audits
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Risk probability and impact assessment
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation



Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?
A. Risk register
B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS) C. Risk management plan
D. Risk category
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Executing
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Organizations perceive risks as:
A. events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.



B. the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.
C. events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives. D. the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?
A. Project stakeholders
B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder C. Project manager and project team
D. Project manager and project sponsor
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
A. Schedule management plan B. Project management plan C. Quality management plan D. Resource management plan
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:



QUESTION 58
Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Project plan
C. Activity duration estimates D. Project schedule
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?
A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.
B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place. C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of project risk.
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Assigned risk ratings are based upon:
A. Root cause analysis.
B. Risk probability and impact assessment. C. Expert judgment.
D. Revised stakeholders' tolerances.



Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?
A. Customer request
B. Market demand
C. Technological advance D. Strategic opportunity
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63



What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?
A. Decomposition
B. Benchmarking
C. Inspection
D. Checklist analysis
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?
A. Final phase of the project B. Start of the project
C. End of the project
D. Midpoint of the project
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS) B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation



Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?
A. BAC B. EAC C. ETC D. WBS
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?
A. Plan contracting
B. Requesting seller responses
C. Selecting seller's
D. Planning purchase and acquisition
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
What causes replanning of the project scope? A. Project document updates



B. Project scope statement changes C. Variance analysis
D. Change requests
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?
A. Project calendar
B. Communications management plan
C. Organizational process assets updates D. Project document updates
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?
A. Sequence Activities
B. Estimate Activity Resources C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:



QUESTION 71
What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?
A. Expert judgment
B. Risk registry
C. Risk response planning D. Interviewing
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?
A. WBS directory B. Activity list
C. WBS
D. Project schedule
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?
A. Risk assessment analysis B. Make or buy analysis
C. Contract value analysis D. Cost impact analysis



Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis C. Expert judgment D. Decomposition
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?
A. Project Time Management
B. Project Cost Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Human Resource Management
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?


A. Acquire Project Team
B. Develop Project Management Plan C. Manage Project Execution
D. Develop Project Charter
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?
A. Probability and impact matrix B. Contingency analysis report C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Rolling wave plan
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?
A. Influence diagrams B. Brainstorming
C. Assumption analysis D. SWOT analysis
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation



Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?
A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Closing
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?
A. Transfer B. Share C. Avoid D. Accept
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?
A. Teaming



B. Collective bargaining C. Sharing
D. Working
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?
A. Vendor risk assessment diagram B. Risk register
C. Requirements traceability matrix D. Area of responsibility summary
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
When addressing roles and responsibilities, which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?
A. Authority
B. Role
C. Competency D. Responsibility
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:



QUESTION 84
Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?
A. Preventive action B. Risk management C. Corrective action D. Defect repair
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary C. Requirements management plan
D. Requirements documentation
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?
A. Ishikawa
B. Milestone
C. Influence
D. Decision tree



Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?
A. Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide
B. The Standard for Program Management
C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)
D. Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?
A. Exploit B. Share C. Enhance D. Transfer
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?


A. Brainstorming
B. Strategies for opportunities C. Decision tree analysis
D. Risk data quality assessment
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Collect Requirements C. Create WBS
D. Define Scope
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation



Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?
A. Recognized by every project manager
B. Constantly evolving
C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
A. Alternatives identification B. Scope decomposition
C. Expert judgment
D. Product analysis
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:
A. Define Activities. B. Create WBS.



C. Define Scope.
D. Develop Schedule.
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:
A. feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.
B. initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.
C. Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance. D. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?
A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA) C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:



QUESTION 97
The diagram below is an example of a:
A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS). B. Project team.
C. SWOT Analysis.
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Who is responsible for initiating a project?



A. Project sponsor
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office (PMO)
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Risk exists the moment that a project is:
A. planned. B. conceived. C. chartered. D. executed.
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?
A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge
D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation



Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
A project lifecycle is defined as:
A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.
B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully. C. a recognized standard for the project management profession.
D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:
A. assumption log. B. quality checklist. C. risk register.
D. contract type.
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:
A. operate separately.
B. move together in batches, C. overlap and interact.



D. move in a sequence.
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:
A. facilitated workshops.
B. observations.
C. questionnaires and surveys. D. group creativity techniques.
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?
A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept C. Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept D. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106



Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:
A. manager. B. success. C. deadline. D. scope.
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?
A. Networking B. Training
C. Negotiation D. Issue log
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:
A. risk taking and risk avoidance. B. known risk and unknown risk. C. identified risk and analyzed risk. D. varying degrees of risk.
Correct Answer: A



Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?
A. Project B. Scope C. Contract D. Program
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:
A. highlight the need for root cause analysis.
B. share the process documentation among stakeholders. C. offer assistance with non-value-added activities.
D. identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported? A. Configuration management plan



B. Scope baseline
C. Requirements management plan D. Schedule baseline
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?
A. External
B. Lead
C. Discretionary D. Mandatory
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?
A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.
B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. Approval of the scope statement.
D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:



QUESTION 114
Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them?
A. Project sponsor and project manager
B. Project sponsor and functional manager C. Project manager and project team
D. Project team and functional manager
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?
A. Organizational process assets B. Resource availability
C. Change control process
D. Team performance assessment
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
Soft logic is also known as what type of dependency?
A. External
B. Discretionary C. Mandatory D. Internal



Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?
A. Customers
B. Project sponsors
C. Project management team D. Insurance claims department
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
What are the components of the “triple constraint”?
A. Scope, time, requirements B. Resources, time, cost
C. Scope, management, cost D. Scope, time, cost
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?


A. Risk identification
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning D. Quantitative risk analysis
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?
A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones B. Force of nature, such as a flood
C. Risk threshold target
D. Crashing, front loading, or fast tracking
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Quantitative risk analysis C. Risk management planning D. Risk response planning
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation



Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?
A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages
B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment C. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 123
Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?
A. Product scope description
B. Project charter
C. Preliminary project scope statement D. Communications management plan
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity? A. Schedule Analysis



B. Checklist Analysis
C. Assumption Analysis D. Cost-Benefit Analysis
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Functional manager supported by the project manager D. Project management office
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Which of the following forecasting methods uses historical data as the basis for estimating future outcomes?
A. Time series B. Judgmental C. Econometric D. Simulation
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:



QUESTION 127
Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix C. Risk data quality assessment D. Risk categorization
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
The project charter is an input to which process?
A. Develop Project Charter
B. Develop Project Management Plan C. Monitor and Control Project Work D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
What is Project Portfolio Management?
A. Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.
B. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing and controlling. C. Management of all projects undertaken by a company.
D. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.



Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
The product scope description is used to:
A. Gain stakeholders support for the project.
B. Document the characteristics of the product. C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Formally authorize the project.
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?
A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases
B. Marketplace conditions and company structure
C. Commercial databases and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market place conditions
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
What are the five Project Management Process Groups?



A. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
B. Introduction, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
C. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Ending
D. Introduction, Planning, Implementation, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closure
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
PMBOI Guide is a standard that describes:
A. product-oriented processes.
B. project management processes.
C. product-oriented and project management processes.
D. program management and project management processes.
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?
A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure C. Requested changes
D. Project scope statement
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation



Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
In the Initiating Process Group, at what point does the project become officially authorized?
A. When the project charter is signed
B. When all the stakeholders agree on the scope of the project C. When the project manager is appointed
D. When the necessary finance or funding is obtained
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
Which of the following is the process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables?
A. Estimate Activity Durations B. Sequence Activities



C. Define Activities D. Activity Attributes
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
What entity is assigned various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management of those projects under its domain?
A. Project management office B. Project team office
C. Executive sponsor office
D. Program management office
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?
A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:



QUESTION 140
Inputs to Identifying Stakeholders include:
A. Project charter, procurement documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets. B. Project charter, stakeholder analysis, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
C. Project charter, stakeholder analysis, enterprise environmental factors, and stakeholder management strategy. D. Project charter, procurement documents, expert judgment, and organizational process assets.
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter?
A. Project manager information systems B. Expert judgment
C. Change control meetings
D. Brainstorming
Correct Answer: B Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Develop Project Team process?
A. Acquisitions
B. Organizational theories C. Team-building activities D. Virtual teams



Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
The Cost Management processes and their associated tools and techniques are usually selected during which of the following?
A. Project finance management B. Project cost estimation
C. Project life cycle definition
D. Project plan development
Correct Answer: C Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
A primary function of a project management office is to support project managers in a variety of ways, including which of the following?
A. Developing and managing project policies, procedures, templates, and other shared documentation B. Acting as the project sponsor by providing financial resources to the project
C. Resolving issues and change management within a shared governance structure
D. Aligning organizational/strategic direction that affects project and program goals
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
A project can be defined as a:



A. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result B. Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
C. Permanent endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result D. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
During a project’s initiation phase, the project manager reviews the business case and finds that information is incomplete. What should the project manager do?
A. Add an information gap to the risk register.
B. Review the project statement of work (SOW) to create the project charter.
C. Revise the business case to narrow the project scope and create the project charter.
D. Review the business case with the sponsoring organization to confirm that the project aligns with business needs.
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
A project manager begins a project to develop a network of walkways in a rural area. This is part of a government initiative to enhance pedestrian safety. The project team systematically gathers and analyzes information to measure and manage expectations during the project.
Where should the project manager document their results?
A. Stakeholder analysis
B. Quality management plan
C. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis D. Resource management plan
Correct Answer: A



Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
A project has been initiated that has several project stakeholders from various departments. Some stakeholders are unavailable for the facilitation meeting to discuss end-to-end processes. To satisfy their own personal agenda, the project owner requests that the meeting take place without all stakeholders present.
What should the project manager do?
A. Reschedule the meeting to accommodate all stakeholders.
B. Hold a separate meeting with those stakeholders who are unavailable.
C. Set up a facilitation meeting without all stakeholders to obtain initial requirements. D. Discuss stakeholder availability with the sponsor.
Correct Answer: D Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
After joining a new project, the project manager discovers that stakeholders’ initial expectations of its duration fail to match their own experience with rolling out similar projects. What should the project manager do?
A. Present the stakeholders with lessons learned from prior projects. B. Ask the project sponsor for additional resources.
C. Revise the duration estimates to meet stakeholder expectations. D. Update the project scope to align with stakeholder requirements.
Correct Answer: A Section: Initiation Explanation
Explanation/Reference: