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A 45-year-old Caucasian female was admitted to the hospital for treatment of cellulitis. The doctor was concerned the pa

Posted: Wed Dec 22, 2021 10:37 am
by answerhappygod
A 45-year-old Caucasian female was admitted to the
hospital for treatment of cellulitis. The doctor was concerned the
patent might become septic as she had a low-grade fever. The
patent was given an IV antimicrobial (clindamycin), fluids,
and monitored for 2 days. The patient responded well to treatment
and was released from the hospital with a prescription to continue
clindamycin for 5 days. Four days after the patient was discharged,
she returned to the hospital. The patient complained of abdominal
cramps and severe pain, watery diarrhea, and a rapid heart rate.
She again has a low-grade fever and appears dehydrated despite her
stating that she had been drinking water. A stool sample revealed
blood in her stool and her blood work revealed an elevated white
blood cell count. The patient commented she had mostly been resting
at home and that her niece was staying with her to help her out.
She also claimed she hadn't had much of an appetite for
the last 2 days and had only been eating chicken noodle soup,
crackers, and some toast.
What is your diagnosis for the patient and what is the
causative agent?
How was the infection acquired and/or how and why did it
develop?
Can the patient spread this illness to her niece? Why or
why not.
How would you treat the patient? What issues can you
foresee arising in trying to treat the patient?
What type of agent must be used to clean the room while
the patient is hospitalized and after discharge?