Answer Happy

we define that 0

Posted: Tue Jun 07, 2022 6:57 am

by answerhappygod

we define that 0<p<q<1

We Define That 0 P Q 1 We Define That F X Log 1 X When 0 X 1 F X Is A Continuous Derivative And It Is Possible To 1 (3.84 KiB) Viewed 57 times

we define that f(x)=log(1−x). when 0<x<1, f(x) is a
continuous derivative, and it is possible to differentiate
it.
Therefore, it is possible to apply the "mean value theorem".
Plus, when, 0<p<q<1 we can say that there is c(p
<c <q) that can

We Define That 0 P Q 1 We Define That F X Log 1 X When 0 X 1 F X Is A Continuous Derivative And It Is Possible To 2 (3.07 KiB) Viewed 57 times

We Define That 0 P Q 1 We Define That F X Log 1 X When 0 X 1 F X Is A Continuous Derivative And It Is Possible To 3 (3.97 KiB) Viewed 57 times

We Define That 0 P Q 1 We Define That F X Log 1 X When 0 X 1 F X Is A Continuous Derivative And It Is Possible To 4 (4 KiB) Viewed 57 times

now, as 0<p<c<q<1 if we times both sides by
-1 it becomes,

We Define That 0 P Q 1 We Define That F X Log 1 X When 0 X 1 F X Is A Continuous Derivative And It Is Possible To 5 (3.61 KiB) Viewed 57 times

Moreover, if we add "1" it becomes,

We Define That 0 P Q 1 We Define That F X Log 1 X When 0 X 1 F X Is A Continuous Derivative And It Is Possible To 6 (3.92 KiB) Viewed 57 times

In this equality it is clear that
1−p≠0,1−c≠0,1−q≠0, the inverse number/ reciprocal of 1-p, 1-c,
1-q it becomes,

We Define That 0 P Q 1 We Define That F X Log 1 X When 0 X 1 F X Is A Continuous Derivative And It Is Possible To 7 (2.91 KiB) Viewed 57 times

if we again, times -1 for both sides, it becomes,

We Define That 0 P Q 1 We Define That F X Log 1 X When 0 X 1 F X Is A Continuous Derivative And It Is Possible To 8 (2.97 KiB) Viewed 57 times

We Define That 0 P Q 1 We Define That F X Log 1 X When 0 X 1 F X Is A Continuous Derivative And It Is Possible To 9 (3.67 KiB) Viewed 57 times

For questions from 2-6 choose either d or e.
plz match question with the alphabet below.
a. 0
b. 1
c.−1
d. <
e. >
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