Answer Happy

Please give solutions, with steps.
How can you solve the problem of the 1-D infinite square well potential if you choose the general solution in the form of Cexp(i√2mE/ħ²x) + Dexp(-i√√2mE/ħ²x) instead of A sin √2mE/h2x + B cos √√2mE/ħ² x ? To do that, show the allowed solutions, (constant) sin . nπX 2a and (constant) . COS nπX 2a can be constructed from the general solution and then, determine the constants from the normalization condition. V=∞0 V=∞o V=∞0 -a V=0 +a V=∞0 X