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In our discussions of the binary spin model thus far, each "spin" took values 0; = +1 with 50-50 probability, with total

Posted: Sun Oct 03, 2021 3:36 pm
by answerhappygod
In Our Discussions Of The Binary Spin Model Thus Far Each Spin Took Values 0 1 With 50 50 Probability With Total 1
In Our Discussions Of The Binary Spin Model Thus Far Each Spin Took Values 0 1 With 50 50 Probability With Total 1 (35.49 KiB) Viewed 101 times
In our discussions of the binary spin model thus far, each "spin" took values 0; = +1 with 50-50 probability, with total magnetization we'll define here as M = LX 0;. Suppose instead that each spin takes value 0; = 1 with probability 0, and o; = -1 with probability 1 – 0. M itself is a random variable with probability distribution Pon(M), which is sometimes called a "biased random walk." 1a. Write a function walk(theta, N) which takes in parameters 0, N, and outputs a magnetization M drawn from the distribution Pon(M).