Let fn(x) = x + 1/n, x ∈ R. Show that ((fn)^2 ) does not converge uniformly to (f∗)^2 on R.
Posted: Mon May 09, 2022 11:34 am
Let fn(x) = x + 1/n, x ∈ R.
Show that ((fn)^2 ) does not converge uniformly to (f∗)^2 on
R.
Show that ((fn)^2 ) does not converge uniformly to (f∗)^2 on
R.