If f(t) = 1⁄a sinh(at), then its Laplace transform is?

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answerhappygod
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If f(t) = 1⁄a sinh(at), then its Laplace transform is?

Post by answerhappygod »

a) 1⁄s2-a2
b) 2a ⁄ (s – b)2 + b2
c) n! ⁄ (s – a)n-1
d) Does not exist
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