A 22-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 2-hour history of fever, chills, and muscles aches. Six hours ago, she received an injection of penicillin G benzathine for syphillis. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). Physical examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following best explains this patient's symptoms?
A) Antibiotic resistance
B) Drugal'.ergy
C) Drug-induced disseminated intravascular coagulation
D) Release of bacterial products
E) Serum sickness
A 22-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 2-hour history of fever, chills, and muscles aches. S
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answerhappygod
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